The Forum > General Discussion > A Tale of 2 Sikhs
A Tale of 2 Sikhs
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Now.. FOUNDATION documents..and my 'selective' use of them. Honestly.. that is a total joke.
Assertion.
"Mohammad used 'revelation' to justify him gratifying his sexual desires with a procession of women"
This caused his wives to become Jealous, and then.. suddenly, he had 'incoming' revelation to justify his behavior.
Now..see if you see it in the following: (from the 33rd Surah.)
Verse 50 "The women MOhammad may marry"
[O Prophet! surely We have made lawful to you your wives whom you have given their dowries, and those whom your right hand possesses out of those whom Allah has given to you as prisoners of war, ....
and a believing woman if she gave herself to the Prophet, if the Prophet desired to marry her-- specially for you, not for the (rest of) believers.]
NOW.. 'TIME PASSES'...and no other verse is 'revealed'.. there is no verse 51 at this point.. so what's happening 'on the ground'?
He is enjoying the fruits of that 'a believing woman' coupled with 'temporary marriage' (which had not been forbidden at this time)
how do I know this ? :) simple.. I ask his young child wife who says:
Muslm Book 008, Number 3453:
'A'isha (Allah be pleased with her) reported: I felt jealous of the women who offered themselves to Allah's Messenger and said: Then when Allah, the Exalted and Glorious, revealed this:" You may defer any one of them you wish, and take to yourself any you wish; and if you desire any you have set aside (no sin is chargeable to you)" (33. 51), I ('A'isha.) said: It seems to me that your Lord hastens to satisfy your desire.
COMMENT:
DID_YOU_SEE_IT? wakey wakey... You now know the exact and unambigious circumstances for HOW and WHEN and WHY the 51st verse of the Quran was "revealed"
The question is.. do you see what it says about Mohammad and.. his motives?
Do you THEN see why people (including the Muslims of his day) have 'problems' with this chain of events?