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How does God exist? : Comments
By Peter Sellick, published 9/11/2006We are privy to God’s address to us but not to God Himself.
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You do exhibit that a priori mindset, I have referred to several times. Your "theology" is Christian theology. Herein, several positions are taken as "givens". Narrow and unsystematic, I put.
Theology [ incl. How does God exist?], is best studied, as a subset of history and anthropology. Albeit, reinforcement schedules are likely to psychological, neurological and bio-chemical.
Relda,
Interesting post. Thanks.
Greek influence was dying even, before Jesus. Nazareth was a Hellenised city in cultural decline. In the broader course of intellectual history, it was Greek (Attic), Latin, then Greek again (Koine) linguistics. Albeit, I think Philo of Alexandia might have written in Attic.
Latin and Koine Greek are held to be less proficient than Attic Greek in articulating abstract ideas (Wells). Our line of Christianity is the Latin line. The split between Greek/Latin occurred when Charlemaine added "filio que" to the Nicene Creed. Wherein, Latin Cristains maintain the Holy Ghost proceeds from the Father and THE SON. [Causality before Plank-time seems problematic to me.]
The latter is more slatted towards Arianism. Charlemaine's oath of alliance, sworn by subjects, asserted the Latin view. Detractors were killed. [
Also, as noted above, a split also occurred under Hadrian (177 CE?), wherein, the Pella exiles formed two groups, from the Christian sect Jews. The first thirteen bishops of the Christian sect were Jews, post-Jesus.
The interplay of Greek concepts in a Latin Church, with Hebrew roots is complex. Wherein, Greek infleunce ebbs and flows.
There are many views out there. Other religions are fractionised too: e.g., Islam.
I suspect Sells' would deny the above accounts [which is his right]. Just the same, I wish Peter would engage the topic, without, so many affixed assumptions.