The Forum > Article Comments > Why 'religion'? > Comments
Why 'religion'? : Comments
By Meg Wallace, published 22/10/2015I argue that Article 18 applies to the adoption and manifestation of any life-stance philosophy, religious or otherwise.
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Surely, when the Universal Declaration of Human Rights was first agreed to, the signatories didn't envisage that there may be basic contradictions in what they were agreeing to: that the very 'freedom' of religious practice would logically mean the infringement of rights for many people.
For example, the rights of women: those religious precepts which dictated
* that men were to have more right than women,
* that women could be beaten (as long as the injuries were not visible),
* that young women could be married off at ages which - perhaps ? - conflicted with other UN declarations,
* that inheritance rules etc., favoured men over women,
* that a divorced woman had to give up her children, including her baby once she had stopped breast-feeding it,
* differential treatment for men and women accused of adultery,
* the sanctioning of honour killings, etc., etc.
And surely that Declaration did not sanction the right of religious schools to teach principles which directly conflicted with the political notions of the society which hosted those schools ? Against the freedom of speech, for example ? Against the equality of women ? Against observing the rule of law, in the name of a god ?
So I must strongly endorse your conclusion, that:
"The view that religious freedom is pre-eminent over freedom of other beliefs cannot be sustained if we are to promote freedom of, and consequently freedom from, belief."
And surely that was not the intention of those who signed that Declaration ?
Joe
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