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"out of 52,128 random breath tests, 225 people were caught drink-driving."
IOW, less than 0.5% of those tested were at or beyond the (already arguably too low) 0.5% limit. The sample is quite large, so this would seem to be a reasonably robust result.
Here's another statistic: "In the 48 hours to midnight Friday, three motorists were caught drug-driving,"
A whole 3 in the entire State of Qld. There was not a road fatality in Qld for the period reported on.
Given the hoopla around the issue of driving while impaired, with all sorts of broad claims made about the "scourge of drugs" and the massive expenditure by the various state govts on kits to test for them, surely only 3 people caught in a 48hour public holiday blitz is unexpected?
In NSW, http://www.smh.com.au/national/increase-in-road-deaths-alarms-police-20090411-a3du.html the figures are even lower, with "less than 0.2 per cent of the 93,500 drivers randomly breath tested over the weekend so far found to be over the limit." In NSW, the number of motoring deaths has risen by 20% over last year.
What is wrong? Is the testing methodology unreliable? Are police not using it, or using it incorrectly? Could it be that the so-called hordes of druggies on the road are simply a figment of political and police imagination? I suspect the latter.
My questions for OLOers sre these: does the small number of people using alcohol or drugs and then driving continue to justify the massive expenditure and the assault on civil liberties that roadside testing implies?
Is alcohol/drug use actually a causative factor in a large number of accidents, or is it merely a convenient scapegoat that can be used to give police more intrusive powers? Even the police only claim 2 out of 19 pedestrian deaths over the period "may" have alcohol as a "significant" factor.